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Class B Wastewater Treatment Operator Exam

Free Sample Exam

Questions: 50

Passing standard: 70.0%

Select an answer to get immediate feedback and an explanation. When you finish, submit the exam to see your diagnostic score and the categories that may need additional study.

Question 1 of 50

A plant's solids retention time has been steadily increasing. Effluent ammonia remains low, but settleability is worsening and the sludge shows other signs of being too old. Which control change is most appropriate?

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Question 2 of 50

A rectangular aeration basin is 80 ft long, 40 ft wide, and 12 ft deep. Flow is 0.80 MGD. Using 7.48 gal/ft³, what is the approximate theoretical detention time?

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Question 3 of 50

An operator repeatedly skips a required plant log entry despite prior coaching. Which supervisory response is most appropriate?

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Question 4 of 50

A primary sludge line plugs repeatedly. Operators find very thick sludge in the hopper because withdrawal intervals have become long. Which change is most appropriate?

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Question 5 of 50

Grit removed from an aerated grit chamber contains excessive putrescible organic material and develops strong odors. Which operating change is most appropriate?

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Question 6 of 50

A proposed wastewater line must cross near a potable-water line, and the standard separation cannot be maintained. What is the appropriate Class B operator-level response during design review?

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Question 7 of 50

An aerated lagoon develops widespread septic odors and black water after one of two aerators fails during a period of high organic loading. What is the best response?

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Question 8 of 50

Before an employee enters a permit-required confined space at a wastewater facility, which action is most appropriate?

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Question 9 of 50

Wastewater entering a chlorine contact basin has a chlorine demand of 8.0 mg/L. The operator wants a residual of 1.5 mg/L after contact time. What initial chlorine dosage should be targeted, assuming the demand estimate is accurate?

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Question 10 of 50

A sewer segment has recurring root intrusion at several pipe joints. Jet cleaning restores flow temporarily, but the problem returns within months. What is the best long-term response?

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Question 11 of 50

A plant wants to determine whether its discharge is contributing to low dissolved oxygen in a receiving stream. Which monitoring approach is most informative?

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Question 12 of 50

A primary clarifier develops dark, septic sludge and gas bubbles that lift settled solids to the surface. Sludge has been withdrawn only once per day. What is the best corrective action?

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Question 13 of 50

Rags and plastics begin appearing in downstream pumps and primary clarifier equipment after the headworks screen had previously removed them effectively. What is the best first investigation?

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Question 14 of 50

On a centrifugal wastewater pump, the discharge valve is gradually throttled while suction conditions and pump speed remain unchanged. What generally happens to the pump's operating point?

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Question 15 of 50

If the daily influent BOD load stays about the same while aeration-basin MLVSS inventory doubles, what happens to the food-to-microorganism ratio (F/M), assuming basin volume is unchanged?

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Question 16 of 50

Influent pH suddenly falls to 3.5, respiration in the aeration basin drops, and an industrial discharge is suspected. What is the most appropriate response?

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Question 17 of 50

An activated-sludge plant has a secondary clarifier with a high, fluffy sludge blanket and poor settling. The 30-minute settle test is high, and aeration-basin DO has been near 0.5 mg/L for several days. What is the best initial process response?

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Question 18 of 50

A plant wastes 50,000 gal/day of sludge at 0.80% solids. A dewatering process captures 95% of the incoming solids and produces cake at 20% solids. Approximately how many wet tons of cake are produced per day? Use 8.34 lb/gal and 2,000 lb/ton.

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Question 19 of 50

An RBC shaft stops rotating because of a drive failure. Why is prompt corrective action important?

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Question 20 of 50

A primary clarifier has poor suspended-solids removal even though the sludge blanket is normal. Flow observation shows most influent entering one side of the tank and short-circuiting toward the effluent weir. What should be corrected?

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Question 21 of 50

An activated-sludge plant has low F/M, very long solids age, small pin floc in the final effluent, and minimal wasting. Which adjustment is most appropriate?

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Question 22 of 50

A collection system shows a large wet-weather flow increase at the treatment plant while influent BOD concentration drops substantially. Which explanation best fits the data?

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Question 23 of 50

An activated-sludge plant develops thick, persistent dark-brown foam. The solids retention time is much higher than the plant's normal target and wasting has been very low. Which response is most appropriate?

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Question 24 of 50

A belt filter press suddenly produces wetter cake and cloudy filtrate. Polymer use was recently increased, but no bench testing was performed. What is the best next step?

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Question 25 of 50

A Texas domestic wastewater treatment facility is classified at a level that requires a Class B chief operator. Which staffing choice satisfies the minimum license-level requirement for the chief operator?

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Question 26 of 50

A 30-minute settleometer test gives 450 mL/L settled sludge. MLSS is 3,000 mg/L. What is the approximate SVI, and what does it suggest?

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Question 27 of 50

A permit defines compliance with a monthly average BOD5 limit of 20 mg/L using four representative weekly results. The results are 18, 22, 19, and 25 mg/L. What should the operator conclude?

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Question 28 of 50

During a BOD5 test, dissolved oxygen in a sample bottle is completely depleted before the end of the incubation period. What is the best response?

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Question 29 of 50

A trickling filter begins ponding on the media surface and the rotary distributor slows. What should the operator investigate first?

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Question 30 of 50

A wastewater pond has very high dissolved oxygen in late afternoon but very low dissolved oxygen just before sunrise. What best explains this pattern?

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Question 31 of 50

A utility manager directs the wastewater supervisor to reduce overtime without increasing compliance risk. What is the best implementation approach?

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Question 32 of 50

An aeration basin suddenly appears to have low dissolved oxygen, but the DO meter fails its calibration check in air. What should the operator do before making a major process change?

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Question 33 of 50

A secondary clarifier sample settles well at first, but after standing the sludge rises with small gas bubbles. Aeration-basin nitrate is high. What is the most likely cause?

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Question 34 of 50

A discharge permit sets a daily maximum effluent TSS limit of 30 mg/L. A valid compliance sample measures 36 mg/L. What is the correct conclusion?

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Question 35 of 50

Influent organic loading drops sharply while MLSS and aeration rate remain unchanged. DO rises well above the plant's normal operating target. What process-control response is most reasonable?

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Question 36 of 50

A permit has a monthly average flow limit of 1.50 MGD and no separate daily maximum flow limit. Four equally weighted reporting-period flow values are 1.20, 1.40, 1.70, and 1.30 MGD. Which interpretation is correct?

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Question 37 of 50

During storms, operators observe water pouring through several low manhole lids and the treatment plant receives severe hydraulic peaks. What corrective action most directly addresses this source of inflow?

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Question 38 of 50

A centrifugal influent pump develops a gravel-like noise, vibration, and unstable flow. Suction pressure is lower than normal. What should the operator investigate first?

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Question 39 of 50

After a sharp peak-flow event, secondary effluent TSS rises and the clarifier sludge blanket climbs, but settleability tests remain normal. What is the most likely problem?

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Question 40 of 50

A reclaimed-effluent irrigation area begins ponding and producing runoff after several days of wet weather. What is the best immediate operating response?

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Question 41 of 50

Chlorine feed rate has not changed, but the contact-basin residual falls while influent ammonia and organic loading increase. What is the most likely explanation?

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Question 42 of 50

Why do wastewater collection-system design criteria include minimum-flow-velocity requirements?

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Question 43 of 50

A plant's final clarifier blanket is rising even though SVI remains acceptable. Operators find that one return activated sludge pump is out of service and actual RAS flow is far below the normal target. What should be done first?

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Question 44 of 50

A plant treats 2.5 MGD and needs an 8.0 mg/L chemical dose. The chemical solution is 12.5% active by weight and weighs 10.0 lb/gal. Approximately how many gallons of solution are required per day? Use 8.34 lb per (mg/L·MGD).

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Question 45 of 50

An anaerobic digester shows falling pH, rising volatile acids, and declining gas production after a rapid increase in feed. What is the best operating response?

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Question 46 of 50

An aerobic digester develops odors, poor volatile-solids reduction, and near-zero dissolved oxygen after an aeration-system failure. What should the operator do first?

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Question 47 of 50

A chlorine-room alarm activates and a strong chlorine odor is detected near the doorway. What should an operator who is not assigned as an emergency responder do first?

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Question 48 of 50

A nitrifying activated-sludge plant has adequate aeration-basin DO, but effluent ammonia is rising. Laboratory data also show pH near 6.2 and very low alkalinity. Which condition is the most likely contributor?

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Question 49 of 50

A dewatering system's polymer solution is being sent directly to the press immediately after mixing even though the product requires aging time. Cake solids decline and solids escape in the filtrate. What correction is most appropriate?

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Question 50 of 50

Under Texas domestic wastewater collection-system design criteria, what is the minimum nominal diameter for a gravity sanitary sewer collection pipe, excluding service laterals and special cases?

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