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WPI Standardized Wastewater Treatment Operator Class II

Free Sample Exam

Questions: 50

Passing standard: 70.0%

Select an answer to get immediate feedback and an explanation. When you finish, submit the exam to see your diagnostic score and the categories that may need additional study.

Question 1 of 50

A chronic WET report shows reduced reproduction in the effluent treatments, but reproduction is also below the method acceptability criterion in the dilution-water control. What is the immediate interpretation?

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Question 2 of 50

After a sodium bisulfite feed change, final free chlorine becomes nondetect while total residual is also nondetect. The downstream dissolved oxygen decreases unexpectedly. Which possibility should be checked?

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Question 3 of 50

One basin DO probe reads 0.6 mg/L, but a calibrated portable instrument nearby reads 2.3 mg/L and the online probe membrane is heavily fouled. Which step is most appropriate?

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Question 4 of 50

An open-channel ultrasonic meter shows erratic low flows only when the upstream flume has visible deposits and water-level turbulence. Which corrective check is most appropriate?

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Question 5 of 50

A sludge transfer pump moves 500 gal/min (31.5 L/s) against 80 ft (24.4 m) of total dynamic head. Assume a relative density (specific gravity) of 1.00. Measured shaft input is 20 hp (14.9 kW). Using 3,960 in the US hydraulic horsepower equation, what is the approximate pump efficiency?

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Question 6 of 50

A 30-minute settled-sludge test forms a clear supernatant, but the actual secondary clarifier discharges floating sludge clumps containing gas bubbles. Effluent nitrate is elevated. What mechanism merits focused investigation?

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Question 7 of 50

Personal monitoring during an 8-hour shift records 4 ppm of a gas for 2 hours, 1 ppm for 4 hours, and 0 ppm for 2 hours. Ignoring any short-term or ceiling criteria, what is the arithmetic 8-hour time-weighted average?

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Question 8 of 50

A blower has stable discharge pressure and flow, but one aeration basin lane shows persistently low dissolved oxygen while an adjacent lane is normal. Which field check best discriminates a distribution fault?

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Question 9 of 50

A mixer motor is normally supplied from a motor control center but can also receive power from a standby transfer switch. What should the authorized crew verify before hands-on maintenance?

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Question 10 of 50

A plant pump delivers less flow at the same speed, makes a crackling noise, and has a fluctuating suction pressure. The wet-well level is lower than during normal operation. Which diagnosis should be investigated first?

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Question 11 of 50

An operator preparing to enter a designated permit-required digester vault obtains a normal oxygen reading at the top of the opening. Which additional action is still necessary before entry?

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Question 12 of 50

A permitted U.S. wastewater facility discovers an unplanned bypass with possible permit implications. Which action best preserves compliance while the investigation continues?

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Question 13 of 50

In a chlorinated effluent contact basin, measured residual meets the plant target but peak flow has doubled and the basin operating volume is unchanged. What additional factor is essential before concluding disinfection is adequate?

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Question 14 of 50

After an industrial discharge, aeration-basin DO drops from 2.0 to 0.7 mg/L while blower air delivery remains steady. Influent soluble BOD increases, and pH is stable. What is the most likely immediate process explanation?

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Question 15 of 50

A wet-well level transmitter reads 8.2 ft, while a recently verified local staff gauge reads 5.0 ft; the pump starts earlier than expected. Which test best identifies a measurement-chain fault?

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Question 16 of 50

A gravity thickener has increasing solids blanket depth and more suspended solids in overflow while the feed concentration remains stable. Underflow pumping has been below the planned rate. Which response most directly targets the imbalance?

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Question 17 of 50

A centrifuge shows a rapid increase in vibration after a feed-solids increase; bowl speed and differential speed are otherwise unchanged. What should be evaluated before increasing feed rate further?

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Question 18 of 50

During a plate-and-frame filter press cycle, filtrate starts clear but solids later appear at the outlet associated with one plate. Feed characteristics and polymer preparation are unchanged, and no comparable change occurs at the other plates. What action best addresses a suspected localized bypass?

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Question 19 of 50

An air-lift grit removal system has normal air supply pressure and flow, but grit accumulates in the channel and the discharge carries little solids. What is the most useful targeted inspection?

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Question 20 of 50

An activated-sludge plant shows rising effluent ammonia. DO, temperature, and solids age remain within the established range for nitrification, with no known change in industrial discharge. Aeration effluent pH has fallen and alkalinity is nearly exhausted. Which factor is most directly supported by these observations?

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Question 21 of 50

A plant using an anaerobic selector for biological phosphorus removal begins showing elevated effluent orthophosphate. The selector receives substantial nitrate in the RAS, while other operating conditions remain similar. What is a plausible mechanism?

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Question 22 of 50

An online ammonia analyzer abruptly reports elevated final-effluent ammonia. A grab collected at the analyzer sampling point at the same time remains near baseline when tested by a laboratory method with acceptable calibration and QC. Which step is most defensible?

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Question 23 of 50

At 1.5 MGD (5,678 m3/day), a dechlorination trial requires 1.2 mg/L of active reagent. The purchased product is 40% active ingredient by mass. Ignoring additional safety factors, approximately how much commercial product is required per day?

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Question 24 of 50

Effluent ammonia increases as nitrate decreases, with aeration DO stable but the mixed-liquor temperature substantially lower than the prior week. What additional data best help assess potential loss of nitrification?

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Question 25 of 50

In a step-feed aeration system, the first inlet zone is oxygen limited while later zones have excess DO. Total blower delivery is adequate. Which control review most directly addresses the imbalance?

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Question 26 of 50

A laboratory reports BOD5 of 38 mg/L and CBOD5 of 21 mg/L on the same treated-effluent sample, both with acceptable QA. What is the most defensible interpretation?

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Question 27 of 50

A sludge withdrawal isolation valve still turns but cannot fully seat, and a planned pump repair requires positive hydraulic isolation. What should be established before authorizing the repair?

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Question 28 of 50

Primary-clarifier effluent TSS rises while influent TSS and basin flow remain stable. Sludge withdrawal has been intermittent and the sludge blanket is elevated. Which operating change best targets the observed mechanism?

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Question 29 of 50

A secondary clarifier has a deepening sludge blanket, but the settling test remains good and the RAS pump is below its normal operating range. Influent flow is unchanged. What is the most directly supported adjustment?

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Question 30 of 50

A plant equalization basin is nearly empty at dawn but reaches high level every afternoon, even though the flow to secondary treatment fluctuates strongly. Which adjustment best uses the basin as intended?

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Question 31 of 50

A metering pump feeds a non-gas-evolving chemical solution from a replacement drum of the same product strength. The measured liquid discharge per minute falls at unchanged stroke rate and stroke length, and bubbles appear in the suction tubing. Which check most directly investigates the observed loss of delivery?

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Question 32 of 50

A delivery of sodium hypochlorite arrives while a storage-tank area also contains an acid cleaning chemical. The secondary-containment arrangement is unclear. What is the appropriate operational check?

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Question 33 of 50

After a duty pump stops, its discharge line briefly reverses flow and the header pressure surges. The parallel pump is operating normally. What inspection most directly addresses the likely defect?

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Question 34 of 50

A mechanical bar screen has a rising upstream level, but the downstream channel level and incoming flow are stable. The drive runs and debris still collects against the bars. Which observation would most directly distinguish ineffective raking from a high downstream restriction?

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Question 35 of 50

An oxidation ditch shows adequate average DO but settled solids accumulate in one channel reach after an aerator is throttled. What operating property needs direct confirmation?

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Question 36 of 50

An aerobic digester receives a larger waste-activated-sludge feed than before. Dissolved oxygen and temperature remain within the facility operating targets, but volatile-solids reduction has declined, the digester discharge rate has increased, and calculated solids retention time is shorter. Which operating adjustment best addresses the evidence?

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Question 37 of 50

A generator completes its weekly unloaded exercise, but during a supervised transfer test the clarifier drive starts and a large blower fails to accelerate. What additional check is most informative?

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Question 38 of 50

A plate-and-frame press has intact cloths and sound plate seals, but cake solids decrease after polymer dose is reduced; filtrate remains mostly clear. What should be checked before modifying cycle pressure?

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Question 39 of 50

A secondary clarifier treats a plant effluent flow of 0.90 MGD (3,407 m3/day), excluding return activated sludge. Its liquid surface area is 4,500 ft2 (418 m2). Using the plant effluent flow, what is its approximate surface overflow rate?

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Question 40 of 50

A high-level overflow alarm recurs at the influent pump station during peak wet-weather flow, but response logs show inconsistent calls and delayed dispatch. Which administrative improvement addresses the demonstrated failure?

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Question 41 of 50

Influent flow is 0.85 MGD (3,217 m3/day) and BOD5 concentration is 210 mg/L. Approximately how much BOD5 enters the plant each day?

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Question 42 of 50

An RBC stage has uneven shaft rotation, rising gear reducer temperature, and an unchanged wastewater flow. What should be checked first under the approved isolation procedure?

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Question 43 of 50

A secondary clarifier bridge repeatedly trips on torque while the sludge blanket is unusually high. No drive fault is recorded when the basin is empty for maintenance. Which plant observation best helps determine if the trip is process-related?

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Question 44 of 50

A trickling filter shows localized ponding and persistent odors, with recirculation flow within its normal range. Underdrains contain accumulated solids and airflow appears restricted. What action best targets both observations?

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Question 45 of 50

A 30-minute mixed-liquor settling test produces 800 mL/L of settled sludge. MLSS is 2,500 mg/L. What is the approximate sludge volume index (SVI)?

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Question 46 of 50

A plant instrument-air receiver pressure recovers slowly after valve actuations, although the compressor runs continuously. Moisture is present in several actuator air lines. Which combined check best explains the fault?

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Question 47 of 50

A UV channel reports normal electrical power but declining UV intensity and increasing effluent UV transmittance. The lamp operating hours are still within the scheduled interval. What should the operator assess?

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Question 48 of 50

SCADA displays a valve OPEN while a field limit switch and local indicator both show CLOSED. The PLC command bit is OPEN. What conclusion is best supported?

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Question 49 of 50

A facultative lagoon develops strong odors and low near-surface DO shortly after an abrupt weather-driven mixing event. Which observation would help determine whether reduced stratification has brought anaerobic bottom water into the surface layer?

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Question 50 of 50

Tertiary-filter effluent turbidity rises after a prolonged run, while headloss across the bed is above its normal endpoint. Influent quality is unchanged. What should be evaluated next?

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